Joh 1:16, Eph 4:5 | Barnes | STEP | Verse 16. Of his fullness . In the evangelist has said that Christ was full of grace and truth . Of that fulness he now says that all the disciples had received; that is, they derived from his abundant truth and mercy grace to understand the plan of salvation, to preach the gospel, to live lives of holiness; they partook of the numerous blessings which he came to impart by his instructions and his death. These are undoubtedly not the words of John the Baptist, but of the evangelist John, the writer of this gospel. They are a continuation of what he was saying in the 14th verse, the 15th verse being evidently thrown in as a parenthesis. The declaration had not exclusive reference, probably, to the apostles, but it is extended to all Christians, for all believers have received of the fulness of grace and truth that is in Christ. Comp. . In all these places our Saviour is represented as the fulness of God--as abounding in mercy, as exhibiting the divine attributes, and as possessing in himself all that is necessary to fill his people with truth, and grace, and love. Grace for grace . Many interpretations of this phrase have been proposed. The chief are briefly the following: 1st. "We have received, under the gospel, grace or favour, instead of those granted under the law; and God has added by the gospel important favours to those which he gave under the law." This was first proposed by Chrysostom. 2nd. "We, Christians, have received grace answering to , or corresponding to that which is in Jesus Christ. We are like him in meekness, humility," &c. 3rd. "We have received grace as grace --that is, freely. We have not purchased it nor deserved it, but God has conferred it on us freely " (Grotius). 4th. The meaning is, probably, simply that we have received through him abundance of grace or favour. The Hebrews, in expressing the him. He knew him intima superlative degree of comparison, used simply to repeat the word--thus, "pits, pits," meaning many pits (Hebrew in ). So here grace for grace may mean much grace; superlative favours bestowed on man; favours superior to all that had been under the law --superior to all other things that God can confer on men. These favours consist in pardon, redemption, protection, sanctification, peace here, and heaven hereafter. (w) "fulness"

John 1:16

Verse 16. Of his fullness. In Jn 1:14 the evangelist has said that Christ was full of grace and truth. Of that fulness he now says that all the disciples had received; that is, they derived from his abundant truth and mercy grace to understand the plan of salvation, to preach the gospel, to live lives of holiness; they partook of the numerous blessings which he came to impart by his instructions and his death. These are undoubtedly not the words of John the Baptist, but of the evangelist John, the writer of this gospel. They are a continuation of what he was saying in the 14th verse, the 15th verse being evidently thrown in as a parenthesis. The declaration had not exclusive reference, probably, to the apostles, but it is extended to all Christians, for all believers have received of the fulness of grace and truth that is in Christ. Comp. Eph 1:23, 3:19, Col 1:19, 2:9. In all these places our Saviour is represented as the fulness of God--as abounding in mercy, as exhibiting the divine attributes, and as possessing in himself all that is necessary to fill his people with truth, and grace, and love.

Grace for grace. Many interpretations of this phrase have been proposed. The chief are briefly the following:

1st. "We have received, under the gospel, grace or favour, instead of those granted under the law; and God has added by the gospel important favours to those which he gave under the law." This was first proposed by Chrysostom.

2nd. "We, Christians, have received grace answering to, or corresponding to that which is in Jesus Christ. We are like him in meekness, humility," &c.

3rd. "We have received grace as grace--that is, freely. We have not purchased it nor deserved it, but God has conferred it on us freely" (Grotius).

4th. The meaning is, probably, simply that we have received through him abundance of grace or favour. The Hebrews, in expressing the him. He knew him intima superlative degree of comparison, used simply to repeat the word--thus, "pits, pits," meaning many pits (Hebrew in Gen 14:10). So here grace for grace may mean much grace; superlative favours bestowed on man; favours superior to all that had been under the law --superior to all other things that God can confer on men. These favours consist in pardon, redemption, protection, sanctification, peace here, and heaven hereafter.

(w) "fulness" Jn 3:34

Ephesians 4:5

Verse 5. One Lord. This evidently refers to the Lord Jesus. The "Spirit" is mentioned in the previous verse; the Father in the verse following. On the application of the word "Lord" to the Saviour, Acts 1:24. The argument here is, that there ought to be unity among Christians, because they have one Lord and Saviour. They have not different Saviours adapted to different classes; not one for the Jew, and another for the Greek; not one for the rich, and another for the poor; not one for the bond, and another for the free. There is but one. He belongs in common to all as their Saviour; and he has a right to rule over one as much as over another. There is no better way of promoting unity among Christians than by reminding them that they have the same Saviour. And when jealousies and heart-burnings arise; or when they are disposed to contend about trifles; when they magnify un important matters until they are in danger of rending the church asunder, let them feel that they have one Lord and Saviour, and they will lay aside their contentions, and be one again. Let two men, who have never seen each other before, meet in a distant land, and feel that they have the same Redeemer, and their hearts will mingle into one. They are not aliens, but friends. A cord of sympathy is struck more tender than that which binds them to country or home; and though of different nations, complexions, or habits, they will feel that they are one. Why should contentions ever arise between those who have the same Redeemer?

One faith. The same belief. That is, either the belief of the same doctrines, or faith of the same nature in the heart. The word may be taken in either sense. I see no reason why it should not include both here, or be used in the widest sense. If so used, it means that Christians should be united because they hold the same great doctrines; and, also, because they have the same confidence in the Redeemer in their hearts. They hold the same system as distinguished from Judaism, Paganism, Mohammedanism, Deism; and they should, therefore, be one. They have the same trust in Christ, as a living, practical principle-- and they should, therefore, be one. They may differ in other attachments; in temperament; in pursuit; in professions in life; but they have a common faith, and they should be ONE.

One baptism. This does not affirm that there is one mode of baptism, but it refers to the thing itself. They are all baptized in the name of the same Father, Saviour, Sanctifier. They have all in this manner been consecrated unto God, and devoted to his service. Whether by immersion, or by pouring, or by sprinkling, they have all been baptized with water; whether it is done in adult years, or in infancy, the same solemn act has been performed on all--the act of consecration to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. This passage cannot be adduced to prove that only one mode of baptism is lawful, unless it can be shown that the thing referred to here was the mode and not the thing itself; and unless it can be proved that Paul meant to build his argument for the unity of Christians on the fact that the same form was used in their baptism. But this is evidently not the point of his argument. The argument is, that there was really but one baptism--not that there was but one mode of baptism. I could not use this argument in this form--"Christians should be one because they have been all baptized by sprinkling;" and yet the argument would be just as forcible as to use it in this form-- "Christians should be one because they have all been baptized by immersion." There is one baptism, not one mode of baptism; and no man has a right to assume that there can be but one mode, and then apply this passage to that. The essential thing in the argument before us is, that there has been a consecration to the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost, by the application of water. Thus understood, the argument is one that will be felt by all who have been devoted to God by baptism. They have taken the same vows upon them. They have consecrated themselves to the same God. They have made the same solemn profession of religion. Water has been applied to one and all as the emblem of the purifying influences of the Holy Spirit; and having been thus initiated in a solemn manner into the same profession of religion, they should be one.